As an LPN candidate preparing for the NCLEX, practicing with the right set of questions can make all the difference in your preparation. The NCLEX LPN practice questions are an essential tool for reinforcing your knowledge, honing your critical thinking skills, and helping you become comfortable with the test’s format. But what sets good practice questions apart from the rest is the accompanying rationale—the explanation behind each answer. This allows you to not only know the correct answer but also to understand the reasoning behind it.
In this guide, we’ll walk through 50 must-know NCLEX LPN practice questions, each followed by a detailed rationale to ensure you’re fully equipped for the exam. Whether you’re reviewing for the first time or polishing your skills, this resource will help you fine-tune your approach to the NCLEX LPN exam.
Which of the following interventions is the priority for a patient experiencing shortness of breath after surgery?
A) Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
B) Notify the healthcare provider
C) Check the patient’s oxygen saturation levels
D) Assist the patient to a semi-Fowler’s position
Rationale:
The priority intervention is to assist the patient to a semi-Fowler’s position (D). This position facilitates lung expansion and helps improve breathing. While oxygen administration (A) may be needed, positioning is the first step in stabilizing the patient’s condition.
2. What is the first action the nurse should take when a patient begins to have a seizure?
A) Place a tongue depressor in the patient’s mouth
B) Monitor the patient’s vital signs
C) Ensure the patient is in a safe environment
D) Administer seizure medication
Rationale:
The first action is to ensure the patient is in a safe environment (C). This may involve moving objects that could harm the patient or cushioning their head. Placing a tongue depressor (A) is a common myth that should be avoided, as it can lead to injury.
3. A 65-year-old patient is admitted with a myocardial infarction. Which of the following symptoms is most concerning?
A) Chest pain radiating to the left arm
B) Fatigue and weakness
C) Lightheadedness and dizziness
D) Nausea and sweating
Rationale:
Chest pain radiating to the left arm (A) is the most concerning symptom, as it is a classic sign of a myocardial infarction. While fatigue and nausea may occur, they are less specific to this emergency.
4. A diabetic patient is complaining of weakness, sweating, and shaking. What should the nurse do first?
A) Administer insulin
B) Check the patient’s blood sugar level
C) Administer a carbohydrate-rich snack
D) Encourage the patient to drink water
Rationale:
The first action is to check the patient’s blood sugar level (B). These symptoms may indicate hypoglycemia, and confirming the blood sugar level is necessary before any intervention.
5. A patient with COPD is prescribed a bronchodilator. What is the priority nursing intervention?
A) Monitor the patient for signs of dizziness
B) Assess for increased shortness of breath
C) Teach the patient how to use the inhaler
D) Encourage the patient to increase fluid intake
Rationale:
The priority intervention is to teach the patient how to use the inhaler (C). Proper use of the bronchodilator is essential for the medication’s effectiveness in treating COPD symptoms.
6. A nurse is caring for a patient who has just undergone a mastectomy. Which of the following actions is appropriate to prevent lymphedema?
A) Keep the affected arm elevated
B) Apply ice to the surgical site
C) Use a compression sleeve on the arm
D) Restrict the patient’s fluid intake
Rationale:
The correct answer is to keep the affected arm elevated (A). Elevation promotes lymphatic drainage and helps prevent lymphedema after a mastectomy.
7. What is the primary goal of treatment for a patient with acute pancreatitis?
A) Pain management
B) Promoting nutrition
C) Preventing infection
D) Preventing fluid overload
Rationale:
Pain management (A) is the primary goal in acute pancreatitis. The inflammation and irritation of the pancreas cause severe pain, and controlling this pain is the first step in treatment.
8. A pregnant woman is in her first trimester and reports vomiting and nausea. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A) Encourage her to eat small, frequent meals
B) Instruct her to rest in bed for the day
C) Recommend an over-the-counter anti-nausea medication
D) Advise her to drink only water until symptoms resolve
Rationale:
Encouraging small, frequent meals (A) is the most effective intervention for managing nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This approach helps stabilize blood sugar levels and minimizes the likelihood of nausea.
9. A patient with a history of hypertension is prescribed a new medication. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
A) Hypotension
B) Tachycardia
C) Hyperglycemia
D) Hypokalemia
Rationale:
Hypotension (A) is a common side effect of antihypertensive medications, especially in the initial stages of treatment. Monitoring for low blood pressure is essential to ensure the patient remains stable.
10. A nurse is caring for a patient with a wound infection. Which of the following is the most important action to prevent the spread of infection?
A) Applying a sterile dressing
B) Administering antibiotics as prescribed
C) Washing hands before and after wound care
D) Limiting visitors to the patient’s room
Rationale:
Washing hands before and after wound care (C) is the most important action in preventing the spread of infection. Proper hand hygiene is essential for reducing the risk of cross-contamination.
11. A patient with renal failure is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following symptoms requires immediate attention?
A) Swelling of the legs
B) Headache and dizziness
C) Decreased urine output
D) Weight gain of 2 pounds
Rationale:
Headache and dizziness (B) can indicate complications from hemodialysis, such as hypotension or electrolyte imbalances. Immediate attention is needed to address these symptoms.
12. Which of the following is the priority action when a patient is admitted with severe chest pain and diaphoresis?
A) Obtain a 12-lead ECG
B) Administer morphine as prescribed
C) Monitor blood pressure and heart rate
D) Position the patient in a semi-Fowler’s position
Rationale:
Obtaining a 12-lead ECG (A) is the priority action in a patient with chest pain, as it helps identify any cardiac ischemia or infarction that requires urgent treatment.
13. A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of alcohol abuse. Which vitamin deficiency should the nurse monitor for?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B1 (thiamine)
C) Vitamin D
D) Vitamin C
Rationale:
Vitamin B1 (thiamine) (B) deficiency is common in patients with alcohol abuse, and it can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion or memory problems.
14. A patient is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for?
A) Hypertension
B) Tachycardia
C) Respiratory depression
D) Diarrhea
Rationale:
Respiratory depression (C) is a common and dangerous side effect of morphine. The nurse should closely monitor the patient’s respiratory rate and oxygen levels.
15. A patient is receiving warfarin for anticoagulation therapy. What should the nurse teach the patient regarding diet?
A) Avoid foods high in vitamin K
B) Increase intake of leafy green vegetables
C) Consume high-fat foods for better absorption
D) Avoid all dairy products
Rationale:
The patient should avoid foods high in vitamin K (A), such as leafy green vegetables, because vitamin K interferes with the effectiveness of warfarin.
16. A nurse is caring for a patient who has just received a blood transfusion. What is the most important thing to monitor during the first 15 minutes?
A) Respiratory rate
B) Blood pressure
C) Temperature
D) Heart rate
Rationale:
The nurse should closely monitor the patient’s temperature (C) for any signs of a transfusion reaction. A temperature increase could indicate a febrile reaction to the transfusion.
17. A patient is receiving IV fluids for dehydration. Which of the following assessments is the priority?
A) Urine output
B) Skin turgor
C) Blood pressure
D) Respiratory rate
Rationale:
Blood pressure (C) is the priority assessment in a patient receiving fluids for dehydration. Dehydration often causes hypotension, and this is the most critical factor to monitor during rehydration.
18. A patient is receiving potassium supplements. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse report immediately?
A) Muscle weakness
B) Increased urine output
C) Shallow breathing
D) Dry mouth
Rationale:
Muscle weakness (A) could indicate hyperkalemia, a dangerous side effect of potassium supplements. This requires immediate reporting and intervention to prevent complications.
19. A patient with a spinal cord injury is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. What is the most effective prevention strategy?
A) Turning the patient every 2 hours
B) Applying barrier cream to the skin
C) Massaging the skin to promote circulation
D) Using a specialized mattress
Rationale:
Turning the patient every 2 hours (A) is the most effective method for preventing pressure ulcers. Frequent repositioning reduces pressure on vulnerable areas of the body.
20. A patient is being treated for a stroke. Which of the following is the priority assessment during the acute phase?
A) Glasgow Coma Scale
B) Blood glucose level
C) Oxygen saturation level
D) Neurovascular checks
Rationale:
Neurovascular checks (D) are the priority assessment in the acute phase of a stroke to monitor for any changes in neurological status or signs of worsening ischemia.
Why Choose ReMar Review?
At ReMar Review, we prioritize effective, thorough, and real-world preparation for aspiring LPNs. Our NCLEX LPN practice questions, combined with detailed rationales, offer not just a chance to practice but also an opportunity to learn why certain answers are correct, solidifying your understanding and boosting your confidence. With our expert resources, you’ll be ready to face the NCLEX with the knowledge and skills necessary to succeed.